⚡ TL;DRIELTS Writing Task 2 asks you to write a 250-word essay in 40 minutes. Questions fall into seven essay types and roughly twelve topic categories. The most frequently tested themes are education, technology, society, environment, health, and government. This guide covers every common topic area with example questions and the essay types you need to master.
Originally published July 2026. Last reviewed 3 July 2026.
Understanding Writing Task 2
In IELTS Writing Task 2, you are given a statement or question on a general topic and asked to write an essay. The task contributes two-thirds of your total Writing band score (Task 1 contributes one-third). You must write at least 250 words — most successful candidates write between 270 and 300 words.
Your essay is assessed on four criteria, each worth 25 %:
Task Response — How fully you address the question
Coherence and Cohesion — Logical organisation and use of linking devices
Lexical Resource — Range and accuracy of vocabulary
Grammatical Range and Accuracy — Variety of sentence structures with minimal errors
The Seven Essay Types
Essay Type
What the Question Asks
Structure
Agree / Disagree (Opinion)
“To what extent do you agree or disagree?”
Introduction → 2 body paragraphs supporting your position → Conclusion
Discussion (Both Views)
“Discuss both views and give your own opinion”
Introduction → Body 1 (View A) → Body 2 (View B) → Conclusion with your opinion
Advantages / Disadvantages
“Do the advantages outweigh the disadvantages?”
Introduction → Body 1 (Advantages) → Body 2 (Disadvantages) → Conclusion
Problem / Solution
“What are the problems? What solutions can you suggest?”
Introduction → Body 1 (Problems) → Body 2 (Solutions) → Conclusion
Cause / Effect
“What are the causes and effects?”
Introduction → Body 1 (Causes) → Body 2 (Effects) → Conclusion
Positive / Negative
“Is this a positive or negative development?”
Introduction → Body 1 (Positive aspects) → Body 2 (Negative aspects) → Conclusion
Direct Question (Two-Part)
Two separate questions asked together
Introduction → Body 1 (Question 1) → Body 2 (Question 2) → Conclusion
Common Topic Categories
Based on analysis of exam questions reported by test takers across multiple years, the following twelve categories account for the vast majority of Writing Task 2 prompts:
1. Education
Consistently the most frequently tested topic. Questions cover formal schooling, university education, online learning, the role of teachers, and educational policy.
Example prompts:
Some people think that all university courses should be available to all students. Others think that some restrictions should apply. Discuss both views.
Children should be taught the importance of the environment at school. To what extent do you agree or disagree?
2. Technology
Questions explore how digital tools affect communication, work, privacy, and daily life.
Example prompts:
Many people feel that technology has made life more complex. Do the advantages of modern technology outweigh the disadvantages?
Some people think that the increasing use of technology in the workplace is a positive development. Others disagree. Discuss both views.
3. Society and Culture
Topics include social values, traditions, cultural change, community, and generational differences.
Example prompts:
In many countries, traditional customs are disappearing. What are the causes? What can be done to preserve them?
Some people believe that social media has brought people closer together. Others argue it has made them more isolated. Discuss both views.
4. Environment
Questions address pollution, climate change, wildlife protection, sustainability, and individual vs government responsibility.
Example prompts:
Some people think that instead of preventing climate change, we should find ways to live with it. To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Plastic pollution is a growing problem. What are the causes and what solutions can be implemented?
5. Health
Topics cover lifestyle choices, public health policy, diet, exercise, and mental well-being.
Example prompts:
In many countries, the number of people suffering from stress-related illnesses is increasing. What are the causes and what measures could be taken?
Some people think that governments should promote a healthy lifestyle. Others believe it is a personal choice. Discuss both views.
6. Government and Public Policy
Questions about government spending, law enforcement, taxation, and public services.
Example prompts:
Some people believe that the government should spend money on building public libraries. Others think that the money should be spent on other things. Discuss both views.
Should governments invest more in public transport or road infrastructure?
7. Work and Employment
Topics include remote work, work-life balance, job satisfaction, automation, and career choices.
Example prompts:
Some people work best when they set their own targets. Others perform better when their employer sets targets. Discuss both views.
Many people change careers several times during their working lives. Is this a positive or negative development?
8. Crime and Law
Questions about criminal justice, punishment, crime prevention, and rehabilitation.
Example prompts:
Some people think that the best way to reduce crime is to have longer prison sentences. Others believe there are better approaches. Discuss both views.
9. Media and Advertising
Topics cover news reporting, advertising influence, freedom of speech, and misinformation.
Example prompts:
Advertising has a negative effect on society. To what extent do you agree or disagree?
10. Globalisation
Questions about international trade, cultural exchange, global inequality, and travel.
Example prompts:
International tourism has brought enormous benefits to many places. At the same time, it has caused problems. Do the advantages outweigh the disadvantages?
11. Family and Children
Topics include parenting styles, children’s rights, family structure, and childcare.
Example prompts:
Some people think parents should monitor their children’s activities closely. Others believe children should have more freedom. Discuss both views.
12. Arts and Leisure
Questions about government funding for arts, the value of sport, and creative industries.
Example prompts:
Some people think that governments should spend money on art and culture. Others think this money should be spent on public services. Discuss both views.
How to Approach Any Task 2 Question
Read the question twice — underline the key instruction words (discuss, agree/disagree, causes, solutions).
Identify the essay type — this determines your paragraph structure.
Plan for 5 minutes — write down 2–3 ideas per body paragraph with brief supporting reasons.
Write your introduction — paraphrase the question and state your position or outline.
Develop body paragraphs — one main idea per paragraph, supported by explanation, example, or evidence.
Write a conclusion — summarise your main points without introducing new ideas.
Check your work — spend 2–3 minutes reviewing for grammar, spelling, and word count.
🔑 Key Takeaways
Task 2 is worth two-thirds of your total Writing score — prioritise it in preparation.
Seven essay types exist — learn the structure for each one.
Twelve topic categories cover the vast majority of questions: Education, Technology, Society, Environment, Health, Government, Work, Crime, Media, Globalisation, Family, and Arts.
Education and Technology are the most frequently tested categories.
Always plan for 5 minutes before writing.
Write 270–300 words for a safe margin above the 250-word minimum.
Do not memorise essays — examiners are trained to detect templates and memorised content.
Frequently Asked Questions
How many words should I write for Task 2?
The minimum is 250 words. Writing fewer than 250 words will result in a penalty. Aim for 270–300 words to ensure you comfortably exceed the minimum without running out of time.
Should I write Task 1 or Task 2 first?
Many test preparation experts recommend starting with Task 2 because it carries more weight. Spend approximately 40 minutes on Task 2 and 20 minutes on Task 1. However, the order is your choice.
Do I need to use academic vocabulary?
You should use formal, academic-style language. Avoid slang, contractions, and overly casual expressions. Using topic-specific vocabulary and less common words will help improve your Lexical Resource score.
Can I give a balanced opinion in an Agree/Disagree essay?
Yes, but you must make your position clear. You can partially agree or disagree, but every paragraph should consistently support your stated position. Avoid sitting on the fence without a clear stance.
⚡ TL;DRThe IELTS Speaking test lasts 11–14 minutes and has three parts: Part 1 (personal questions on familiar topics), Part 2 (a two-minute talk from a cue card), and Part 3 (an in-depth discussion on abstract themes). This page lists the most commonly reported topics for each part, with guidance on what examiners are looking for.
Originally published July 2026. Last reviewed 3 July 2026.
How the IELTS Speaking Test Works
The Speaking test is a face-to-face interview with one certified IELTS examiner. It is the same for both Academic and General Training candidates. You are assessed on four criteria, each worth 25 % of your Speaking band score:
Criterion
What It Measures
Weight
Fluency and Coherence
Ability to speak at length without excessive hesitation, with logical organisation
25 %
Lexical Resource
Range and accuracy of vocabulary, including less common words and paraphrasing
25 %
Grammatical Range and Accuracy
Variety of sentence structures and proportion of error-free sentences
25 %
Pronunciation
Clarity, intonation, stress patterns, and ability to be understood
25 %
Part 1: Introduction and Familiar Topics (4–5 Minutes)
The examiner asks you short questions about yourself and topics you are familiar with. You will typically receive questions on three different topics, with approximately four questions per topic. Answers should be 2–4 sentences long — enough to demonstrate language ability without over-talking.
Commonly Reported Part 1 Topics
Topic
Example Questions
Work and Studies
What do you do? Do you enjoy your job/course? What would you like to change about it?
Hometown
Where are you from? What do you like about your hometown? Has it changed much?
Home and Accommodation
Do you live in a house or a flat? What is your favourite room? Would you like to move?
Social Media
Do you use social media often? What kind of content do you share? Has your usage changed?
Cooking and Food
Do you enjoy cooking? What food is popular in your country? Do you prefer eating out or at home?
Music
What kind of music do you listen to? Do you play an instrument? Has your taste changed?
Reading
Do you enjoy reading? What do you prefer — books or articles? Did you read more as a child?
Weather and Seasons
What is the weather like in your country? Do you prefer hot or cold weather?
Shopping
Do you enjoy shopping? Do you prefer shopping online or in stores?
Transport
How do you usually travel? Is public transport good in your area?
Outdoor Activities
Do you spend much time outdoors? What outdoor activities are popular where you live?
Photography
Do you take many photographs? Do you prefer taking photos with a phone or a camera?
Neighbours
Do you know your neighbours? Is it important to have a good relationship with them?
Sleep and Relaxation
How many hours do you sleep? What do you do to relax?
Birthdays and Celebrations
How do people celebrate birthdays in your country? Do you enjoy parties?
Languages
How many languages do you speak? Would you like to learn another language?
Movies and TV
What kind of films do you enjoy? Do you prefer watching at home or in a cinema?
Pets and Animals
Do you have any pets? Are pets popular in your country?
Technology
What technology do you use every day? Has technology changed how you communicate?
Exercise and Sport
Do you exercise regularly? What sport is most popular in your country?
Part 2: The Individual Long Turn (3–4 Minutes)
You receive a cue card with a topic and four bullet points. You have one minute to prepare notes, then you speak for 1–2 minutes. The examiner may ask one or two brief follow-up questions.
Commonly Reported Cue Card Topics
Cue card topics fall into five broad categories:
Category
Example Topics
People
Describe a person who inspires you · Describe someone who is good at their job · Describe a family member you are close to
Places
Describe a place you visited recently · Describe a quiet place you enjoy · Describe a historical building
Objects
Describe a gift you received · Describe a piece of technology you find useful · Describe a book you recommend
Experiences
Describe a time you helped someone · Describe a skill you learned recently · Describe a time you had to wait
Activities and Habits
Describe a healthy habit you have · Describe a podcast or programme you enjoy · Describe a sport you like to play or watch
How to Use Your One-Minute Preparation Time
Read all four bullet points on the cue card before writing anything.
Jot down key words — not full sentences — for each bullet point.
Think of one specific example you can describe in detail.
Note two or three descriptive adjectives you want to use.
When you begin speaking, follow the bullet points in order. This gives your talk a natural structure that covers everything the examiner expects.
Part 3: Two-Way Discussion (4–5 Minutes)
The examiner asks more abstract, opinion-based questions related to the Part 2 topic. This is the most challenging part because you need to express and justify opinions, compare ideas, and discuss hypothetical situations.
Commonly Reported Part 3 Themes
Theme
Example Questions
Technology and Society
How has technology changed the way people communicate? Do you think people rely too much on their phones?
Environment
What can individuals do to protect the environment? Should governments do more about climate change?
Education
Is a university education necessary for success? How has education changed in recent years?
Health and Well-being
Why do some people find it difficult to maintain a healthy lifestyle? What role should governments play in public health?
Work and Employment
Is it better to work for a large company or a small one? How important is job satisfaction compared to salary?
Culture and Tradition
Are traditional customs important in modern society? How can countries preserve their cultural heritage?
Media and Information
Do you think news reporting is always accurate? How do people verify information they read online?
Globalisation
Has globalisation been positive or negative for developing countries? Do you think local businesses can compete with international ones?
General Preparation Strategies
Speak regularly in English — even 15 minutes of daily practice builds fluency more effectively than occasional long sessions.
Record yourself answering practice questions and listen back for hesitation patterns, grammar errors, and pronunciation issues.
Expand your vocabulary by topic — learn 10–15 words related to each common theme and practise using them in sentences.
Practise extending your answers — use phrases like “What I mean is…”, “For instance…”, “Having said that…” to give longer, more developed responses.
Do not memorise scripts — examiners are trained to detect rehearsed answers, which can lower your Fluency and Coherence score.
🔑 Key Takeaways
The Speaking test has three parts: familiar topics (Part 1), a two-minute talk (Part 2), and abstract discussion (Part 3).
You are assessed on Fluency, Vocabulary, Grammar, and Pronunciation — each worth 25 %.
Part 1 covers personal topics like work, home, hobbies, and daily routines.
Part 2 cue cards fall into five categories: People, Places, Objects, Experiences, and Activities.
Part 3 explores abstract themes like technology, environment, education, and culture.
Practise regularly, record yourself, and avoid memorised scripts.
Frequently Asked Questions
Can I ask the examiner to repeat a question?
Yes. You can ask the examiner to repeat or rephrase a question in any part of the test without losing marks.
Is the Speaking test the same for Academic and General Training?
Yes. The Speaking test is identical for both Academic and General Training candidates. The same topics, format, and scoring criteria apply.
Will I lose marks for my accent?
No. IELTS examiners assess pronunciation, not accent. You can speak with any accent as long as your speech is clear and intelligible.
What happens if I run out of things to say in Part 2?
If you stop before one minute, the examiner will prompt you with a follow-up question. Aim to speak for the full two minutes by preparing detailed examples during your one-minute note-taking time.
Can I change my answer during the test?
Yes. Self-correction is natural and shows awareness of accuracy. Correcting yourself is better than leaving an error uncorrected.
⚡ TL;DROne Skill Retake lets you retake a single IELTS section — Listening, Reading, Writing, or Speaking — within 60 days of your original computer-delivered test. The retake fee is roughly 40–60 % of the full test fee. Your retake score replaces your original, even if lower. Available worldwide except the United States.
Originally published July 2026. Last reviewed 3 July 2026.
What Is One Skill Retake?
One Skill Retake (OSR) is a feature from the IELTS partners — British Council, IDP, and Cambridge — that allows candidates to retake one section of the IELTS test without sitting the entire exam again. If you underperformed in just one area, you can focus your preparation on that specific skill.
Eligibility Requirements
Your original test was a computer-delivered IELTS test.
You book and complete the retake within 60 days of your original test date.
You retake only one section per original test.
You did not take your original test in the United States (OSR is not currently available there).
There is no minimum or maximum band score requirement. Whether you scored 4.0 or 8.0, you are eligible.
Which Sections Can You Retake?
Section
Duration
Format
Notes
Listening
~30 min
Computer
40 questions, headphones provided
Reading
60 min
Computer
40 questions, Academic or GT
Writing
60 min
Computer / Writing on Paper
Task 1 + Task 2
Speaking
11–14 min
Face-to-face
Parts 1, 2, and 3
How Much Does It Cost?
The retake fee varies by country and test centre but is typically 40–60 % of the full IELTS test fee. Contact your local IELTS test centre or check the British Council / IDP booking portal for exact pricing in your region.
How Scoring Works
⚠ Your retake score replaces your original — even if it is lower.
There is no option to keep the higher of two scores. Before booking, be confident that additional preparation will genuinely improve your performance.
Your updated Test Report Form will show your original scores for the three unchanged sections plus your new score for the retaken section, with a recalculated overall band.
How to Book
Log in to your IELTS account on the British Council or IDP booking portal.
Select One Skill Retake from your recent test results.
Choose the section and a test date within the 60-day window.
Pay the retake fee.
Prepare — focus on the single section you are retaking.
Attend the retake at the test centre.
Receive your updated results, typically within 1–3 business days.
Where Is It Accepted?
OSR results are accepted by major immigration and academic authorities including:
Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship Canada (IRCC) — accepted for Express Entry and other programmes
UK Visas and Immigration (UKVI) — accepted for all UKVI pathways
Australian Department of Home Affairs — accepted for skilled migration and student visas
Immigration New Zealand (INZ) — accepted for residence and work visas
Always confirm acceptance with your target institution or authority.
When to Use It — and When Not To
Good Candidates for OSR
You missed your target overall band by 0.5 and one section is clearly the weak link.
You had a bad day in one section but performed well in the other three.
You need a specific section score to meet an institution’s minimum requirement.
Consider Retaking the Full Test Instead
You underperformed across two or more sections.
You are not confident you can improve, since a lower score will replace the original.
Your 60-day window does not leave enough preparation time.
🔑 Key Takeaways
Retake one IELTS section within 60 days of a computer-delivered test.
Available worldwide except the United States.
Costs roughly 40–60 % of the full test fee.
Retake score replaces original — even if lower.
Accepted by IRCC, UKVI, Australian Home Affairs, and INZ.
No minimum or maximum band score requirement.
Book through the British Council or IDP portal.
Frequently Asked Questions
Can I retake more than one section?
No. You may retake only one section per original test. To improve two or more sections, retake the full test.
What if my retake score is lower?
The retake score replaces your original. There is no mechanism to keep the higher score.
Is OSR available for General Training?
Yes. OSR is available for both IELTS Academic and General Training, provided the original was computer-delivered.
Can I use OSR for UKVI IELTS?
Yes. UKVI accepts OSR results. The retake must be at a UKVI-approved SELT centre and must be computer-delivered.
Why is OSR not available in the United States?
The IELTS partners have not yet extended OSR to the US market. US-based candidates must retake the full exam. Check the official IELTS portal for availability updates.
⚡ TL;DR
From mid-2026, every IELTS test worldwide is delivered on computer — paper-based testing ended on 27 June 2026. The test content, scoring, and difficulty remain identical. Speaking is still face-to-face with a human examiner. A “Writing on Paper” option is available in selected markets. Results arrive in 1–3 days instead of 13.
Originally published July 2026. Last reviewed 3 July 2026.
What Changed and Why
In late 2025, IELTS announced the largest delivery change in the test’s 35-year history. From mid-2026, all IELTS tests — Academic and General Training — are delivered exclusively on computer. The final date for paper-based IELTS globally was 27 June 2026, according to the official IELTS partners (British Council, IDP, and Cambridge).
The decision followed years of data showing that over 80 per cent of test takers already preferred the computer-delivered option, primarily for faster results and more flexible scheduling.
What Stays the Same
Test content — the questions, passages, and tasks are drawn from the same item bank used for the former paper test.
Scoring criteria — the nine-band scale and all four assessment criteria for Writing and Speaking remain unchanged.
Difficulty level — computer delivery does not make the test easier or harder.
Speaking test — still a live, face-to-face interview with a certified IELTS examiner. This is not conducted on a screen.
Validity — results remain valid for two years from the test date.
What Is Different on Screen
Feature
Former Paper Test
Computer-Delivered Test
Listening audio
Played through speakers for the room
Played through individual headphones with volume control
Listening transfer time
10 minutes to transfer answers
2 minutes to review answers
Reading navigation
Flip physical pages
Split screen — passage on one side, questions on the other; text highlighting and note tools available
Writing input
Handwritten
Typed on keyboard; automatic word count displayed; cut, copy, paste available
Results turnaround
13 calendar days
1–3 business days
Test availability
Limited dates (typically 4 per month)
Multiple sessions per day, nearly every day of the week
One Skill Retake
Not available
Available — retake one section within 60 days
The Writing on Paper Option
In selected markets, IELTS has introduced a “Writing on Paper” option. Test takers who choose this option complete the Listening and Reading sections on computer but handwrite their Writing answers on paper. This caters to candidates who feel more comfortable composing essays by hand.
Important: The UKVI (UK Visas and Immigration) track does not offer the Writing on Paper option, as UK Home Office security requirements mandate fully digital delivery.
How to Prepare for the Computer-Delivered Format
Typing Speed
You do not need to be a fast typist, but you should be comfortable typing at approximately 35–40 words per minute to complete the Writing section without time pressure. Practice typing academic-style paragraphs rather than casual messages.
Screen Reading
Reading passages appear on screen alongside the questions in a split-screen layout. Practise reading long texts on a monitor rather than on paper. Use the built-in highlight tool to mark key sentences, just as you would underline on paper.
On-Screen Navigation
Familiarise yourself with the test interface by using the free official practice materials available from the IELTS partners. Key features to learn:
The copy, cut, and paste shortcuts for the Writing section
The word counter displayed beneath the Writing text box
The review and flag feature for Listening and Reading questions you want to return to
The timer displayed at the top of the screen
The volume slider for adjusting Listening audio through your headphones
Listening Differences
The most significant practical change is in Listening. On the computer-delivered test, you have 2 minutes at the end to check your answers, compared with the 10-minute transfer time on the former paper test. Your answers are typed directly into the answer fields as you listen, so there is no separate answer sheet to fill in.
UKVI Candidates: What You Need to Know
If you are taking IELTS for a UK visa application, all UKVI IELTS tests moved to computer-only delivery from 22 March 2026 — earlier than the global transition. The test must be taken at a UKVI-approved Secure English Language Test (SELT) centre. Standard IELTS (non-UKVI) is not accepted for UK immigration purposes, regardless of your score.
Existing Paper-Based Results
If you took IELTS on paper before the transition, your Test Report Form remains valid for two years from the date of the test, as confirmed by the IELTS partners. No re-test is required solely because of the format change.
🔑 Key Takeaways
Paper-based IELTS ended globally on 27 June 2026 — all tests are now computer-delivered.
Test content, scoring, and difficulty are identical to the former paper format.
Speaking remains a live face-to-face interview with a human examiner.
Results arrive in 1–3 business days instead of 13 calendar days.
Listening gives you 2 minutes to review (not 10 minutes to transfer answers).
One Skill Retake is available exclusively on the computer-delivered test.
The “Writing on Paper” option is offered in selected markets (not UKVI).
UKVI tests transitioned to computer-only on 22 March 2026.
Frequently Asked Questions
Is the computer-delivered IELTS test harder than the paper test?
No. The test content, question types, and scoring criteria are identical. The only difference is the delivery method — you read on a screen and type instead of writing by hand.
Can I still take IELTS on paper anywhere in the world?
No. The last global date for paper-based IELTS was 27 June 2026. In selected markets, the “Writing on Paper” option allows you to handwrite the Writing section only, while Listening and Reading are still on computer.
Do I need to bring my own keyboard or headphones?
No. The test centre provides all equipment, including a computer, keyboard, mouse, and noise-cancelling headphones. You only need to bring your valid identification document.
How fast do I need to type?
A comfortable speed of 35–40 words per minute is sufficient for most candidates. The Writing section gives you 60 minutes for two tasks with a combined minimum of 400 words, so speed typing is not required.
Is my old paper-based IELTS score still valid?
Yes. All existing Test Report Forms remain valid for two years from the original test date. The format transition does not affect previously issued scores.
What is One Skill Retake?
One Skill Retake allows you to retake a single IELTS section (Listening, Reading, Writing, or Speaking) within 60 days of your original computer-delivered test, instead of retaking the entire exam. It is available in most countries except the United States.
A complete model answer and preparation guide for this IELTS Speaking cue card topic. Includes key vocabulary, follow-up questions, and examiner-approved response strategies.
Originally published March 2025. Last reviewed 3 July 2026.
Describe a gift that you gave to someone recently. You should say: what the gift was Whom you gave it to how you felt about it and explain why you chose this gift for this person. Learn How To Answer IELTS Speaking Test Part 2 : CUE Cards. Sample Response 1: I recently gave a handcrafted wooden photo frame to my best friend on her birthday. I chose a frame that was embellished with intricate carvings, and I inserted a picture of the two of us from a memorable trip we took together. My friend has always been appreciative of artisanal crafts, and since we both value our memories, I thought it would be a heartfelt gesture. The look on her face, when she opened it, was priceless, and I felt a deep satisfaction knowing that the gift was both meaningful and personal. Sample Response 2: For my father’s retirement, I gifted him a set of golf clubs. My father has always been interested in golf but never had the time to play. Now, as he enters this new phase of life, I wanted him to have something that would encourage him to pursue this hobby. I spent a considerable amount of time researching and finding the perfect set that would suit his needs. When he opened the gift, his eyes lit up, and I could see the excitement in his face. It felt wonderful to be able to give something that not only brought joy but also aligned with his interests. Sample Response 3: I recently gave a personalized cookbook to my sister, who has recently discovered a passion for cooking. The cookbook was filled with recipes from our family, friends, and some of her favorite chefs, each one annotated with personal notes and tips. I chose this gift because I wanted to support her newfound interest and also provide something that would be a unique treasure. Compiling the recipes and adding personal touches made the gift even more special. When she received it, her reaction was one of surprise and delight, and I felt thrilled to have found the perfect gift that reflected her personality and passion. Explore Various IELTS Speaking Part 2 Cue Card Questions and Answers. Recommended Vocabulary: Handcrafted: Made by hand or by using only simple, non-mechanized tools. Example: The handcrafted wooden frame added a personal and artistic touch to the gift. Intricate Carvings: Complex and detailed designs cut into a surface. Example: The intricate carvings on the frame made it a beautiful piece of art. Heartfelt Gesture: A gesture done with genuine feeling or emotion. Example: The gift was a heartfelt gesture, symbolizing our close friendship. Newfound Interest: A recently discovered hobby or passion. Example: The cookbook was perfect for my sister’s newfound interest in cooking. Annotated: Provided with explanatory notes or comments. Example: Each recipe in the cookbook was annotated with personal notes and tips. Aligned with His Interests: Consistent or matching with someone’s likes or preferences. Example: The golf clubs were aligned with my father’s interests and hobbies. Priceless Reaction: A reaction that is so precious or valuable that its value cannot be determined. Example: My friend’s priceless reaction to the gift made all the effort worthwhile. Unique Treasure: Something very valuable and unlike anything else. Example: The personalized cookbook was a unique treasure that my sister could keep forever. Reflect Her Personality: Represents or embodies someone’s character or traits. Example: The gift was chosen to reflect her personality and her passion for cooking. Deep Satisfaction: A feeling of fulfillment or contentment. Example: The joy in my father’s eyes gave me a deep satisfaction in choosing the perfect gift for him. Different Cue Card Topics Personal Experiences: IELTS Cue Card TopicsPeople and Personalities: IELTS Cue Card TopicsPlaces: IELTS Cue Card TopicsObjects: IELTS Cue Card TopicsEvents: IELTS Cue Card TopicsExperiences and Achievements: IELTS Cue Card TopicsHobbies and Interests: IELTS Cue Card TopicsPlans and Dreams: IELTS Cue Card TopicsNature and Environment: IELTS Cue Card TopicsEducation: IELTS Cue Card TopicsWork and Careers: IELTS Cue Card TopicsTechnology: IELTS Cue Card TopicsHealth and Fitness: IELTS Cue Card TopicsFood and Drinks: IELTS Cue Card Topics
Comprehensive guide covering essential IELTS preparation strategies and techniques to help you achieve your target band score.
Originally published March 2025. Last reviewed 3 July 2026.
The Blog post contains the following IELTS Reading Questions:
IELTS Reading Table Completion
IELTS Reading True/False/Not given
IELTS Reading Multiple Choice Questions
IELTS reading passage – Art or Craft
Art or Craft
A. Craftsmen have traditionally been considered distinct from artists. Craftsmen, such as woodworkers and plasterers, had their own guild, whereas the artist was thought to be a more solitary being confined to an existence in a studio or attic. Furthermore, whereas craftsmen could rely on a reasonably consistent income, artists were frequently living on the breadline, and the term “starving artist” became a synonym to describe the impoverished existence of artists in general. Even today, the lives of a craftsman and an artist could not be more dissimilar. However, what exactly distinguishes craft from art, both practically and philosophically?
B. The nature of the finished product or piece is one of the primary distinctions between art and craft. Fundamentally, the idea of craft has traditionally been connected to the creation of goods that are useful or practical. Contrarily, art is not constrained by the confines of practicality. While an artist’s creation is often without a practical purpose, a craftsman’s teapot or vase should typically be able to carry tea or flowers. In actuality, the sole purpose of art and its existence is to simply “be,” which is why Dada artist Meret Oppenheim made the fur lined teacup. The “cup” as such was evidently never meant to be used in a practical manner, any more than a chocolate teapot possibly was.
C. Artistry in craftsmanship is consequently simply a by product because the number one focus is on what something does, now no longer what it is. The opposite is real for artwork. Artistic merchandise attraction is purely at the degree of the imagination. As the prestigious philosopher, Kant, stated, ‘At its best, artwork cultivates and expands the human spirit.’ Whether the artist answerable for a chunk of artwork has sufficient expertise to acquire that is any other matter. However, the purpose of all artists stays the same: to produce a piece that also goes beyond the mundane and uplifts the viewer. In contrast, the world of the craftsman and his paintings stay lodged firmly in the practicality of the everyday world. An item produced through an artist is consequently essentially specific from the one produced through a craftsman
D. Differences among the 2 disciplines of art and craft make bigger additionally to the method required to produce the finished object. The British philosopher R.G. Collingwood, who set out a list of standards that distinguish art from craft, focused on the distinction between the two subjects in their ‘planning and execution. With a craft, Collingwood argued, the ‘result to be acquired is preconceived or thought out before being arrived at.’ The craftsman, Collingwood says, ‘knows what he desires to make before he makes it’. This foreknowledge, consistent with Collingwood, has to now no longer be vague but precise. In fact, such making plans are taken into consideration to be ‘indispensable’ to craft. In this respect, the craft is essentially one-of-a-kind from the artwork. Art is located by Collingwood at the different end of the creative continuum, the introduction of art being described as a method that evolves non-deterministically. The artist is, therefore, just as unaware as everybody else as to what the end product of the introduction will be, while he’s actually in the process of creating. Contrast this with the craftsman who already knows what the end product will seem like before she or he has even begun to create it.
E. Since the artist isn’t always following a set of standard guidelines in the process of creation, she or he has no guidelines like the craftsman. Whilst the desk or chair created by the craftsman, for example, has to conform to certain expectations in look and design, no such limitations are imposed on the artist. For it is the artist alone who, via a trial-and-error approach, will create the final object.
F. The object merely evolves over time. Whereas the craftsman can pretty correctly predict when a product can be completed taking technical methods into account, the artist can do no such thing. The artist is at the mercy of inspiration alone and pretty apart from not being capable of having a projected completion date, might also additionally never be capable of assuring that the object will be completed at all. Unfinished symphonies by wonderful composers and works of literature by no means finished through their authors testify to this.
G. Having no particular end goal in mind, the emphasis at the finished product which is true of craftsmanship is placed Instead on the act of creation itself with the artist. The creation of the work of art is an exploration and a battle and direction of discovery for the artist. It could be said that the artist is producing as much for himself as for people who will view the finished product. This act of creation is very distinct from the manufacturing of an object that is crafted, therefore. The aim of creating craftwork is monetary compensation. Craft is produced for purchase and is basically a money-generating industry. Any craftsman who observed the artistic approach to creation might quickly be out of a job. Craftsmen are predicted to deliver, artists are not. This is probably the maximum fundamental distinction that separates the craftsman from the artist.
Art or Craft reading questions
Questions 1-10
Complete the table below. Choose 10 answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-L, next to questions 1-10.
the finished product has an emotional and spiritual level appeal
the final product has no ambition to be anything more than it appears.
only the functional use is considered for the final object.
no practical purpose as such is imagined for the created object.
the process of creation is actually a means to an end.
whether there is an end product or not, the product is itself secondary to the process of production.
not having to stick to a set of rules, the process is a matter of experimentation
there is no line of error for experimentation, all of the process are following a set of rules.
the goal is defined from the outset
the process is undefined and fluid
it is useful but not commercially practical
the production process is a mixture of following experimentation and guidelines.
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading Passage?In boxes 11-12 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in passage
11. One of the key differences between craft and art is the type of final item or piece.
12. Artists also have to follow a set of rules like craftsmen.
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Questions 13-14
Choose the correct letter A, B, or C. Write the correct option letter in boxes 13-14 on your answer sheet.
13. Which of the following people can predict the time when the object production will get completed?
Craftsmen
Artist
None of these
14. Which of the following is the most basic difference between a craftsman and an artist?
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Essential strategies and practice techniques for this IELTS Reading question type. Learn how to manage time and improve accuracy.
Originally published March 2025. Last reviewed 3 July 2026.
The Blog post contains the following IELTS Reading Questions
IELTS Reading Multiple choice questions
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IELTS Reading Notes Completion
IELTS reading passage – Endangered Chocolate
A.The cocoa tree, which was formerly indigenous to the tropical American jungle, contains foreign characteristics. Slender and Shrubby, Cacao has acclimated to living near the leaf-littered forest floor. The huge leaves of this plant droop away from the light. Cacao does not blossom at the airfields of its outer and higher stems, as do other plants. Instead, its aromatic white buds dangle from the trunk, and a few thick branches emerge when the leaves fall off. These little flowers develop into pods with pulp similar to the size of rugby balls. The low-hanging pods hold magical seeds with a bitter flavor.
B.Ancient people in Mesoamerica learned the mystery of these beans more than 2,000 years ago. When you dismiss the grains from the pod together with the pulp, when you let them ferment and parch in the sun, and then roast them over a low fire, something extraordinary occurs: they turn chocolatey. If you then crush and press the beans, which are at least fifty percent cocoa butter, you will acquire a crumbly confectionary. Chestnut brown paste is chocolate at its purest and most straightforward.
C.The Maya and Aztecs cherished this chocolate, which they combined with water and spices to create restorative drinks. It was a palatable prize that was offered to their gods, used as a coin, and kept as if it were gold. long after the sixteenth-century introduction of the beverage to Europe by Spanish explorers. There was an atmosphere of aristocratic elegance in chocolate. The Swedish biologist Carolus Linnaeus called the cacao tree genus Theobroma in 1753, which means “food of the gods.”
D.In the past two hundred years, the bean has been considerably democratized, going from a titled drink into across-the-board candy bars, cocoa powders, and confections. Today, chocolate is earning favor around the world, with new demands emerging in Eastern Europe and Asia. This is both profitable and destructive news since, even while farmers are creating historical portions of cacao beans, some academics are concerned that this is not adequate to meet global needs. Cacao also has some concerning problems.
E.Philippe Petithuguenin, director of the cacao program at France’s Centre for International Cooperation in Development-Oriented Agricultural Research (CiRAD), just gave a presentation at a conference in the Dominican Republic. On the global map, he revealed that cacao grows in a miniature area within 180 degrees north and south of the equator. Cacao has been cultivated throughout this hot, humid tropical belt for the past four centuries, from South America and the Caribbean to West Africa, East Asia, New Guinea, and Vanuatu in the Pacific.
F.Today, 70% of all cacao beans are sourced from West and Central Africa. Farmers in several parts engage in so-called pioneer farming.” They clear sections of the forest of all but the tallest canopy trees and then plant cacao, shading the young cacao with temporary banana plantations. This type of forest may generate 50 to 60 pods per tree annually for the next 25 to 30 years. Eventually, however, pests, diseases, and soil depletion reduce crop production. The farmers then proceed to clear a fresh forest area, unless farmers of other crops arrive first. Petit-Huguenin stated, “You cannot continue chopping the tropical forest because the forest itself is threatened.” The global demand for chocolate grows by an average of 3% every year. In the absence of land for new plants in tropical forests, how can this be accomplished?’
G.Many farmers are more concerned about sidestepping sickness. Cacao, especially when produced in plantations, is sensitive to several diseases, mostly rotting diseases caused by various species of fungi that infect the pods or kill the trees. This fungus and other infections may ruin entire cacao-growing areas and kill more than a quarter of the world’s annual yield.
H.Cacao produced in the Bahia area of Brazil was eliminated by a disease called “witches’ broom.” In the 1980s, Brazil’s cocoa bean output declined by 75% as the third biggest producer. According to Petithuguenin, if a genuinely terrible illness like a witches’ broom arrived in West Africa (the largest producer in the world), the outcome would be ruinous. If another manufacturer were to fail at this time, the results would be seen globally. In the United States, for instance, imported cacao is the cornerstone of an $8.6 billion domestic chocolate sector, sustaining the nation’s dairy and nut enterprises. Twenty percent of all dairy products in the United States are used in confectionery.
I.Today, researchers are trying to handle this issue by creating disease-resistant plants. However, even the most desirable plants are useless if there is nowhere to cultivate them. Farmers who cultivate cacao typically receive a pittance for their beans compared to the profits earned by the rest of the chocolate industry. Most are at the mercy of local intermediaries, who purchase the beans and resell them to chocolate producers at a significantly higher price. These individuals must be removed from the process to improve the situation for farmers. However, the economics of cacao are fast shifting due to the dwindling bean supply. Some businesses have realized that they must collaborate more closely with farmers to guarantee the implementation of sustainable agricultural methods. They must restore and buffer the forest with ground cover, bushes, small trees, and canopy trees. The soil will then be more resilient and productive. They must also empower the farmers by guaranteeing them a greater price for their cacao beans in order to encourage them to cultivate cacao and preserve their way of life.
Endangered Chocolate IELTS reading questions
Questions 1-3
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D. Write your answers on your answer sheet from 1-3
1.The cacao plant’s flowers appear
at the tips of its uppermost branches.
across each of its branches.
primarily in the trunk.
is nearing its leaves.
2.Banana trees are planted alongside cocoa plants in Africa in order to
The effect a chocolate manufacturing collapse may have on other sectors.
safeguards the young plants.
give an additional crop.
Contribute to improving soil quality.
3. What is the author referring to in paragraph H when he states that the waves will be felt globally?
the effect a chocolate manufacturing collapse may have on other sectors
the potential for disease transmission to other crops.
the economic consequences for the world’s chocolate farmers?
the connection between Brazilian and African cultivators
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Questions 4-9
The reading passage has nine paragraphs labeled A-I. Which paragraph contains the following information?
From 4–9, write the correct letter A-I in your answer sheet 4-9.
4. a collection of cacao-growing regions
5. an illustration of the disease’s impact on one cacao-growing region.
6. information on an old chocolate beverage.
7. A quick explanation of how the contemporary chocolate business has evolved
8. the average lifespan and yield of a cocoa plantation?
9. a reference to the scientific identification of the cacao plant.
Questions 10-13
Complete the notes below. Write no more than two words from the passage for each answer. Write your answers on your answer sheet from 10-13.
Ways of dealing with the plant’s problems
Chocolate makers must deal directly with farmers as opposed to relying on 10
__________. It is necessary to discover plants that are resistant to 11 ______.
Need to encourage farmers to employ 12 ____. techniques to cultivate cocoa plants
Ensure that farmers receive a portion of the 13____ produced by the chocolate business.
3 Answer: A – The impact a collapse in chocolate production could have on other industries.
4 Answer: E
5 Answer: H
6 Answer: C
7 Answer: D
8 Answer: F
9 Answer: C
10 Answer: Local (middlemen)
11 Answer: Disease
12 Answer: Sustainable
13 Answer: Profits
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Essential strategies and practice techniques for this IELTS Reading question type. Learn how to manage time and improve accuracy.
Originally published March 2025. Last reviewed 3 July 2026.
The Blog post contains the following IELTS Reading Questions:
IELTS Reading Matching Features IELTS Reading True/False/Not given IELTS Reading Matching heading questions
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IELTS Reading Passage: Mobile phones and driving
Mobile phones and driving
A. Mobile phones used to be expensive items when they were first introduced, but they have now been around for more than ten years and are quite common. These cell phones are now more affordable for the majority of people thanks to technological advancement and public demand. The most contentious issue in today’s world, though, is whether or not one should use a cell phone while driving. Will it have any effect on us or pose a threat to others? Alternately, the likelihood of an accident won’t change.
B. Various nations around the globe have started imposing heavy violations as a national policy. Ireland imposes the harshest penalties on the continent, with the UK, Australia, and Finland joining the ranks of nations opposing this extremely dangerous act more recently. (a third offence can mean 3 months imprisonment). In addition to this, the offenders are charged 2000 Euros and 2 weeks in jail in Europe(the Netherlands).
C. As we continue to take our eyes off the road to talk on the phone or, even more dangerously, text, the statistics for motor vehicle accidents are rising daily. Speaking on the phone while driving increases the likelihood of an accident, and texting while driving increases the likelihood of an accident by nine times. The use of a cell phone by the driver has repeatedly and unequivocally been shown to significantly increase the risk of a car accident in study after study that has been replicated around the world.
D. Although the Ministry of Transport is still putting together a report based on public consultation, a proposal made by a previous Labour-led Government in New Zealand suggests a $50 fine and 27 demerit points for anyone using a cell phone while driving. The government is aware that, even though this is just a pending idea, it will be challenging to police, but something needs to be done and people need to be aware of the potential repercussions. Contrary to popular belief, hands-free devices can be just as hazardous as handheld phones when used, according to research from Waikato University.
E. On the one hand, it will be difficult to break the habit of using a cell phone while driving because it has become a part of our daily lives. However, it has been demonstrated that when faced with a hazard on the road, our reaction times are never quick enough. If you are conversing with someone else at the same time, your reaction time will be even slower. The average person finds that it takes them two and a half seconds to react in a dangerous situation. If you are on the phone, that reaction time can increase by two seconds. You have two things competing for your attention: your conversation and driving. It is a physical and cognitive distraction because you have to take one hand off the wheel to hold the phone due to the demands of the conversation and the road. However, an American radio host argued that outlawing cell phones while driving was going too far, asking, “If we outlaw cell phones, what comes next? There are no billboards, coffee shops, or CD players? The host acknowledged that texting while driving posed a risk, but talking on the phone did not.
F. Texting while driving can lead our eyes off the road and was a definite hazard; majority of the individuals accepted this and agreed with him. Now, a question arises that not holding a conversation while driving is as distracting as eating food or reaching for a CD. Even when mobile phones did not come into existence accidents still used to take place so do we really need to take this matter seriously?
G. Of course, people will have different views on this, and it will always be a contentious topic. The number of nations that have laws prohibiting using cell phones while driving is growing, but there are still many more that have yet to follow. Although there is a lack of data, it appears that tests, surveys, and research are conducted frequently in an effort to draw conclusions about how hazardous and possibly fatal this habit may be.
Look at the following list of the statement (Questions 1-5) based on ‘Mobile phones and driving’
Match the statement with the correct person or department A-E.
A.Ministry of Transport B.Road safety groups C.Waikato University D.American radio host E. The New Zealand government
1. Is assembling the public’s feedback at the moment. 2. proposed particular sanctions for using a phone while driving. 3. The likelihood of an accident is higher, as demonstrated by statistics. 4. Believes that using a phone while driving can be dangerous. 5. The risk of talking on the phone is exaggerated.
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Questions 6-10
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage? In boxes 6-10 an your answer sheet write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts with the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
6. The world’s strictest regulations regarding cell phone use while driving are found in Ireland. 7. Speaking on the phone while driving increases the risk of an accident by nine times, according to research by organisations that promote road safety. 8. If the driver is on a mobile device, reaction times in an emergency are doubled. 9. Statistics show that eating while driving is just as risky as using a phone. 10. For a clearer conclusion, more investigation is necessary.
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Questions 11-13
Reading Passage has seven paragraphs A – G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B – D from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-x in boxes 11-13.
List of Headings
i. Effects of mobile phones on risks ii. statistics on texting iii. worldwide responses iv. More research required v. Proof from around the globe vi. Difficulties with enforcement vii. global consensus on punishment viii. Data that contradicts each other ix. The Dangers of Interacting with Passengers x. weighing the risks
1. A 2. E 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. Not given 7. False 8. False 9. Not given 10. True 11. iii 12. v 13. vi
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Essential strategies and practice techniques for this IELTS Reading question type. Learn how to manage time and improve accuracy.
Originally published March 2025. Last reviewed 3 July 2026.
The Blog post contains the following IELTS Reading Questions:
IELTS Reading Multiple Choice Questions
IELTS Reading True/False/Not Given
IELTS Reading Sentence Completion
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IELTS Reading passage–Do You Look Your Age?
Do You Look Your Age?
It can be hard to guess someone’s exact age. A range of factors may leave marks on our appearance: how much sleep We’ve had – even the way we dress and our view of ourselves. The good news is that just as these factors can add years on to your appearance, it follows that they can also take years off. We don’t always have control over some of those social factors that can make us look younger, but there are other steps we can take to try to stop the ravages of age.
SOCIAL FACTORS
Last month, the University of Southern Denmark published a report, The Influence of Environmental Factors on Facial Ageing, which showed that how we live can affect how old we look. In it, 1,826 twins were photographed and then ten female nurses aged between 25-46 years were asked to guess how old the “models” were. The results were intriguing. They showed that belonging to a high social class can make us look up to four years younger, and many other lifestyle factors were shown to affect the way we look. Having children was found to make men look a full year younger, though it had no effect on women, and having four or more children cancelled out the benefit.
Depression and sun exposure were the biggest factors in making you look old before your time. Depression added up to three and a half years to a woman’s perceived age (and 2.4 years for men). Sun exposure piled on at least an extra year. Smoking put on six months for a woman and a year for a man. Meanwhile, having a high BMI (body mass index) was found to take a whole year off for both men and women. “If you are not depressed, not a smoker and not too skinny, you are basically doing well,” says Professor Kaare Christensen (married, three children, non-smoker), one of the report’s authors. Professor Christensen’s report concluded that it was more dangerous for our health to look a year older, than to actually be a year older.
NUTRITION
This is possibly the biggest change we can make fairly easily. There are four main factors that prematurely age us: smoking, too much alcohol, lack of fresh fruit and vegetables, and insufficient protein intake. You can immediately tell a smoker. It’s not just the lines around the mouth and eyes, but smoking is dehydrating to the body. Every time you inhale on a cigarette, you’re taking toxins into the body which have to be diffused and detoxified by the liver and kidneys, and they’re dependent on plenty of fresh water to carry toxins away. Most smokers don’t drink anywhere near enough water.
The really big, quick fix, though, is eating more fresh fruit and vegetables. You can see if someone doesn’t eat enough, or any, fresh fruit and veg in a minute. The skin lacks a freshness and translucency. This is because the skin is the last organ to benefit from the nutrients you eat – the likes of the brain, heart, and lungs all get first share. If someone’s diet is lacking in fruit and veg, the skin will become dehydrated. This is a sign that sufficient nutrients aren’t being delivered, so from an anti-ageing point of view, it’s important to have live, fresh food and raw food is vital. If you have to cook, steaming will retain at least some of the vitamins and minerals.
The other really important thing, and one we tend to miss out on in our diet-obsessed culture, is adequate intake of essential fatty acids (EFAs), from oily fish, nuts, and seeds. EFAs are vital for prolonging life expectancy because every cell in the body has a phospholipid bilayer that protects it, but they also give the skin a dewy, “bouncy”, youthful feel. One of the worst things you can do in terms of looking old is to go on a low-fat diet. Stress is another big one for adding years. We can help support the adrenal and thyroid glands, which take a hammering when we’re stressed, by eating plenty of fresh vitamin C and magnesium for the adrenal glands; and iodine, selenium, zinc, and B vitamins to support the thyroid.
EXERCISE
We’ve come to think of exercise as a pure slimming pursuit and women tend to be rather scared of lifting weights, but building lean tissue through weight-bearing exercise is key to keeping the years at bay. Exercise can help reduce the effects of ageing by slowing down the decline of type II muscle fibres. Generally, type I muscle fibres deal with aerobic activities and type II with anaerobic ones. The type II responds to resistance work to improve muscle tone. With ageing, there’s a reduction in frequency, duration, and intensity of habitual activity: we generally move less. So, these type II fibres deteriorate because they simply don’t get enough stimuli.
SKIN CARE
Almost every skin cream promises to make you look younger. It’s a promise many are seduced by, but many end up disappointed. The problem is not that products don’t work, but starting too late, and then not spending enough money. A lot of people skip good skin care until they think they need it, and by then it’s actually too late. In women, the skin around the eyes is the first to go, in men it’s the hands. A good routine should start early because maintenance is much easier than repair.
Your skin also becomes more transparent as you get older, so you need to adapt your make-up and hair colour accordingly. Foundation should be lighter than you’d imagine, and sheerer, and if you want to cover grey, don’t be tempted to go for a too-dark hair colour or block colour – highlights are kind. Don’t forget to apply moisturiser around the back of the neck: It’s the only bit of skin attached to a bone, so it’s important that you look after it to avoid sagging.
For each question, only ONE of the choices is correct.
27. According to surveys, which of the following social factors makes a person look older?
A Having more than four children B Having a high BMI C Spending a long time in the sun
28. Which of the following nutritional factors makes a person look older?
A Eating lots of fruit and vegetables B Not eating enough protein C Eating lots of meat
29. How can exercise help make a person look younger?
A By making them feel happier B It helps keep type II muscle fibres in better condition. C It increases oxygen flow.
30. What is the main problem with skincare products?
A People don’t use them early enough. B People spend too much money on them. C Most skincare products don’t work.
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Questions 31-35
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each gap.
The Danish survey used photographs of (31)…………………. The greatest difference people can make relatively easily is with (32)………………… The human body uses the (33)……………………to get rid of toxins. A (34)……………………….diet makes people look much older. People should use (35)………………………..on the back of the neck.
Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 36 – 40 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
36. A person’s social class can affect how old they look. 37. Having children makes men and women look younger. 38. Smokers need to drink more water than non-smokers. 39. Some people don’t get enough fatty acids because they are slimming. 40. Most skin creams contain vitamins that are good for the skin.
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We hope you found this post useful in helping you to study for the IELTS Test. If you have any questions please let us know in the comments below or on the Facebook page.
The best way to keep up to date with posts like this is to like us on Facebook, then follow us on Instagram and Pinterest. If you need help preparing for the IELTS Test, join the IELTS Achieve Academy and see how we can assist you to achieve your desired band score. We offer an essay correction service, mock exams and online courses.
Essential strategies and practice techniques for this IELTS Reading question type. Learn how to manage time and improve accuracy.
Originally published March 2025. Last reviewed 3 July 2026.
The Blog post contains the following IELTS Reading Questions:
IELTS Reading Multiple Choice Questions
IELTS Reading True/False/Not Given
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IELTS Reading passage –Caffeine
Caffeine
Almost 200 years ago, a young German chemist named Friedrich Ferdinand Runge isolated a molecule from coffee beans; he named the substance kaffein. Today, scientists are still studying the properties of this bitter, white powder. More than sixty plants are known to produce caffeine, whose pungent taste helps protect them from insect predators.
Caffeine is probably the most widely used drug in the world. Humans have been consuming caffeine for hundreds of years, primarily In the form of coffee, tea, and cocoa. Today, it is also added to soft drinks and energy drinks and is a component of some over-the-counter medications. Many of the world’s people, including children, ingest it in some form daily.
The body absorbs caffeine in less than an hour, and it remains in the system for only a few hours, passing from the gastrointestinal tract into the bloodstream within about ten minutes and circulating to other organs, including the brain. Caffeine molecules are small and soluble in fat, properties that allow them to pass through a protective shield known as the blood-brain barrier and directly target the central nervous system.
Caffeine acts on the body in many ways, some of them probably still unknown. However, caffeine accomplishes its principal action as a stimulant by inhibiting adenosine, a chemical that binds to receptors on nerve cells and slows down their activity. Caffeine binds to the same receptors, robbing adenosine of the ability to do its job and leaving caffeine free to stimulate nerve cells, which in turn release epinephrine (also known as adrenaline), a hormone that increases heart rate and blood pressure, supplies an energy boost and in general makes people feel good.
For all its popularity, caffeine retains a somewhat negative image. It is, after all, a mildly habit forming stimulant that has been linked to nervousness and anxiety and that causes insomnia. It affects most of the body’s major organs. Recent research casts doubt on the magnitude of many of these seemingly undesirable effects and even suggests that a daily dose of caffeine may reduce the risk of some chronic diseases, while providing short-term benefits as well.
Daily caffeine consumption has been associated with lowered incidence of type I diabetes, Parkinson’s disease, and Alzheimer’s disease. How caffeine works to thwart diabetes, a condition characterised by high levels of glucose in the blood, remains unknown, but glucose tolerance or more efficient glucose metabolism may be involved. Parkinson’s disease, a central nervous system disorder that causes tremor and joint stiffness, is linked to insufficient amounts of a substance called dopamine in the brain. Caffeine may interact with brain cells that produce dopamine and help maintain a steady supply. The role of caffeine in Alzheimer’s disease, which damages the brain and causes memory loss and confusion, may be related to a problem In the blood—brain barrier, possibly a contributor in Alzheimer’s, if not the major cause. Caffeine has been found to protect the barrier against disruption, resulting from high levels of cholesterol.
Habitual coffee and tea drinkers had long been observed to have a lower incidence of non-melanoma skin cancers, although no one knew why. A recent study found that caffeine affects skin cells damaged by ultraviolet radiation, a main cause of skin cancer. Caffeine interferes with protein that cancerous cells need to survive, leaving the damaged cells to die before they become cancerous. Drinking caffeinated coffee has also been associated with a decreased incidence of endometrial cancer—that is, cancer of the cells lining the uterus. The strongest effect appears to be in overweight women, who are at greatest risk for the disease. Researchers believe blood sugar, fat cells and estrogen may play a role. Although the mechanism remains unknown, people who drink more than two cups of coffee or tea a day reportedly have about half the risk of developing chronic liver disease as those who drink less than one cup of coffee daily; caffeinated coffee has also been associated with lowered risk of cirrhosis and liver cancer.
While many of caffeine’s undesirable effects, such as elevated heart rate and blood pressure, are brief, some short-term benefits, including pain relief, increased alertness, and increased physical endurance, have also been attributed to caffeine. As a component of numerous over-the-counter diet pills and pain relievers, caffeine increases their effectiveness and helps the body absorb them more quickly. By constricting blood vessels in the brain, it can alleviate headaches —even migraines—and can help counter the drowsiness caused by antihistamines.
Caffeine does not alter the need for sleep, but does offer a temporary solution to fatigue for people who need to stay alert. Research has shown that sleep-deprived individuals who consumed caffeine had improved memory and reasoning abilities, at least in the short term. Studies of runners and cyclists have shown that caffeine can improve their stamina—hence its addition to energy boosting sports drinks.
People who consume a lot of caffeine regularly may develop temporary withdrawal symptoms, headache being the most common, if they quit or cut back on it abruptly. Fortunately, these symptoms last only a day or two in most cases. Individuals who are more sensitive to the stimulatory side effects of caffeine may want to avoid it, but most doctors agree that the equivalent of three cups of coffee a day does not harm healthy people. There is no medical basis to give up daily caffeine and many reasons to include a moderate amount in one’s diet.
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading Passage? In boxes 1-9 on your answer sheet, write-
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
1. 200 years ago, people did not drink coffee regularly. 2. Children generally do not consume caffeine. 3. The nervous system is affected by caffeine. 4. Caffeine causes the heart to beat faster. 5. Caffeine can be addictive. 6. Alzheimer’s disease may be caused in part by caffeine consumption. 7. Drinking coffee can help protect against some skin cancers. 8. Caffeine may increase the incidence of endometrial cancer. 9. Caffeine can help some medications work faster.
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Questions 10-13
Choose the correct letter from A, B, or C.
Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.
10. Caffeine is used to treat ____________.
A. Headaches. B. Liver cancer. C. High blood pressure
11. Some athletes use caffeine to _____________.
A. Maintain their alertness. B. Improve their speed. C. Increase their endurance.
12. Symptoms of caffeine withdrawal ____________.
A. ;Are usually short-lived. B. May last as long as a week. C. Can become an ongoing problem.
13. Drinking three cups of coffee a day _____________.
A. Will probably not cause problems. B. Is harmful to your health. C. May be recommended by a doctor.
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1. Answer: Not Given 2. Answer: False 3. Answer: True 4. Answer: True 5. Answer: True 6. Answer: False 7. Answer: True 8. Answer: False 9. Answer: True 10. Answer: B 11. Answer: C 12. Answer: A 13. Answer: A
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